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non-recourse lending and realtors

Started by Riversider
about 16 years ago
Posts: 13573
Member since: Apr 2009
Discussion about
http://www.nytimes.com/2010/06/22/business/22default.html?ref=business As the housing market continues to sputter, the real estate industry is increasingly split on the responsibilities of overextended and foreclosed homeowners. Your Money Guides On one side are the bankers, who say borrowers should be liable for what they owe. On the other side are real estate agents, who say those who lost their... [more]
Response by Riversider
about 16 years ago
Posts: 13573
Member since: Apr 2009

and calculated risk weighs in...
http://www.calculatedriskblog.com/2010/06/california-senate-passes-bill-to-extend.html

Under California law, purchase money loans are non-recourse. However once a homeowner refinances, the entire mortgage is recourse ... that is probably going to change:

This bill preserves a borrowers protection from a deficiency judgment when loans are refinanced, but only to the extent that the refinance is used to pay debt incurred to purchase the real property. The provisions of this bill become operative on June 1, 2011.

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Response by stevejhx
about 16 years ago
Posts: 12656
Member since: Feb 2008

What's your point?

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Response by Riversider
about 16 years ago
Posts: 13573
Member since: Apr 2009

Realtors have an incentive to promote non-recourse mortgages. Bankers the opposite.

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Response by stevejhx
about 16 years ago
Posts: 12656
Member since: Feb 2008

That's not really a point.

Nonetheless, it takes a bit more investigation than that to make a judgment - California is a title theory state, meaning that the lender actually holds title to the house and the "owner" has a "deed in trust," meaning he's essentially a renter. New York, to contrast, is a "lien theory" state - and a recourse state - where the owner owns the property and the lender has a lien against it for the mortgage.

It seems to me that in California lenders want it both ways - they both want to own the property and want to have recourse for the money lent against it. Foreclosure is much faster and less expensive in title theory states; in lien theory states owners have many more protections, and the foreclosure process is slower and more expensive.

At heart, loans in title theory states are unsecured - the bank owns the property, so there is no collateral. Seems they want the best of both worlds, their cake and to eat it, too. Do borrowers have no rights in your mind?

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Response by Socialist
about 16 years ago
Posts: 2261
Member since: Feb 2010

And if a borrower is pursued for a deficiency judgment and pays it, does that mean they get their house back? Or do the greedy bankers want BOTH the money and the house?

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Response by inonada
about 16 years ago
Posts: 8085
Member since: Oct 2008

If $500K is owed on the house at the time of sale, and the bank sells it for $450K with $50K in expenses, then the deficiency is $100K. The greedy bankers want the $100K back, so that they can give back what they have borrowed from their greedy depositors. These greedy depositors have greedy notions of "I've saved some money, and rather than put it under my matress, I'm going to put it in a bank with some expectation of it being given back to me."

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Response by stevejhx
about 16 years ago
Posts: 12656
Member since: Feb 2008

The bank owns the house from the get-go. The bank made the loan. Therefore, the price risk is the bank's - in a title theory state - because it owns the property and gets it back.

In a lien theory state, the borrower owns the home. The bank has only a lien. Therefore, the price risk is the borrower's.

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Response by alanhart
about 16 years ago
Posts: 12397
Member since: Feb 2007

Those bastards!

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Response by stevejhx
about 16 years ago
Posts: 12656
Member since: Feb 2008

Indeed.

Where's spunky?

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Response by Riversider
about 16 years ago
Posts: 13573
Member since: Apr 2009

I wonder how much of the differences in title vs lien theory states are mostly technical. Other than resulting in judicial or nonjudicial foreclosures I don't see real differences. Does the lender holding title limit their ability to seek a deficiency judgement or in other words treating the "deficiency" as an unsecured credit.

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Response by stevejhx
about 16 years ago
Posts: 12656
Member since: Feb 2008

You can google that.

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